Re: [Caml-list] Calling a function with a self-defined type as argument

[Oliver Bandel <oliver@first.in-berlin.de>]

On 22 Aug 2002, Dimitri Ara wrote:

> Oliver Bandel <oliver@first.in-berlin.de> a écrit :
> 
> > (*
> >    let _ = x Line "h0oifdaji oi" ;;
> >    This last one does not work: => "This function is applied to too many arguments"
> > 
> >    let _ = x Line( "reuruhjf" ) ;;
> >    This last one does not work: => "This function is applied to too many arguments"
> > 
> >    But it works in this way:
> >    let _ = x (Line "reuruhjf") ;;
> > 
> >    WHY?         (why *only* that?)
> >   
> >    At least the second example (with parantheses around the
> >    Line's arguments) should work...?!  
> > *)
> 
> Because :
> 
> (1) application is left associative.
> 
> Thus `f x y' means `(f x) y' and
>      `x Line ""' means `(x Line) ""'.
> 
> (2) parentheses don't delimit the arguments of a function or a
>     constructor but only fix the precedence of an expression.
> 
> Thus f x (y) means f x y and
>      `x Line ("")' means `x Line ""'.

OK.
But why has the Line()-argument not a higher pruiority than the
function-call?
The Line()-argument is only complete, if it get's it's
args. And the type-declaration says in detail, how to
handle the Line().

But it seems to me that it is handled like an "ordinary"
function call. I thought, that the compiler would put
this together: *one* argument to the function, and the
argument means using the type `Line "text"'.

Ciao,
   Oliver

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