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From: Alex Simpson <als@inf.ed.ac.uk>
To: CATEGORIES mailing list <categories@mta.ca>
Subject: Re: Cauchy completeness of Cauchy reals
Date: Wed, 29 Jan 2003 08:35:34 +0000 (GMT)	[thread overview]
Message-ID: <1043829334.3e37925619e77@mail.inf.ed.ac.uk> (raw)
In-Reply-To: <3E36ED4F.4070807@kestrel>



Dear Dusko,

> is there still an error? please ignore the trivial ones this time, and
> i'll try to learn from errors.

Yes, I think there's an error.

> here is a slight modification of sequences from my previous post. let
> Q be the set of rationals between 0 and 1, D <= Q dyadic rationals and
> N natural numbers. a cauchy real A is now a subobject of Q^N such that
>
> [... construction omitted ...]
>
> the proofs proceed like for the corresponding sequences in my previous
> post. in particular, for every x,y : A holds
>
>      |cb(x)i - cb(y)i| <= [... calculation omitted ...]
>                        <=   1/2^i
>
> means that cb(x)i and cb(y)i have the first i digits equal. hence
> dcb(x)i =dcb(y)i. since this holds for all i, dcb(x) = dcb(y).

I don't see that cb(x)i and cb(y)i have the first i digits equal.
It seems possible to have e.g. cb(x)i = .0111 and cb(y)i = .1000.
Indeed, .0111, although it is sufficiently close to b(x)i to
be the value of cb(x)i, may nonetheless be too far from b(y)i
to qualify as a "simpler" candidate for cb(y)i than .1000.

This problem is not easily repaired. In fact, there is a
fundamental obstacle to this approach. Your argument attempts
to construct a function f: Q^N --> Q^N (in your proof given
by f=dcb) satisfying:

  1. f maps any Cauchy sequence to a Cauchy sequence representing
    the same real number.

  2. All sequences that represent the same real number get mapped to
    a single unique Cauchy sequence representative.

Such an f is tantamount to giving a splitting to the epi

  r: {x: Q^N | x a Cauchy sequence} --> I_C

where I_C is the Cauchy interval. There are many toposes
in which Q^N is basically Baire space and I_C is basically
the closed unit interval in Euclidean space
(e.g. Johnstone's "topological topos", many "Gros toposes").
In such toposes, a splitting of r would
correspond to a non-constant continuous function from the
Euclidean interval to Baire space. This is clearly impossible,
as Baire space is totally disconnected. Furthermore,
in many such toposes (e.g. Johnstone's), countable
choice and Markov's principle both hold.

In conclusion, it is impossible to prove the existence of
an f satisfying 1 and 2 above using intuitionistic logic,
even if one further assumes countable choice and Markov's
principle.


Regarding Markov's principle:

> now, as everyone has been pointing out, the dyadic representation
> depends on markov's principle.

This is *not* what has been pointed out (whatever you mean
by dyadic representation).

It is well-known that, in general, very many different
versions of Cauchy sequence coincide, including: Cauchy
sequences of rationals, indeed many variants depending on
properties of the modulus; ditto for sequences of dyadic
rationals; nested sequences of closeed proper intervals;
"signed" binary representation, etc, etc.

What I previously pointed out was that the existence of
ordinary binary representations may fail even in the presence
of Markov's principle.

> in order to prove that the map c is
> total, we need the fact that for every e>0 in Q there is some k such
> that 1/2 + 1/4 +...+ 1/2^k > 1-e. in other words, that there is k
> s.t. 1/2^k < e. this is *equivalent* to markov's principle.

The property quoted is in fact a trivial consequence of intuitionistic
arithmetic alone. It has nothing to do with Markov's principle.
Indeed your function c is total in any elementary topos.

> how bad is markov's principle? well, i think that markov proposed it
> as a valid *intuitionistic* principle:
>
> ** given an algorithm, if i can prove that it terminates, then i
> ** should be able to construct its output.

This is a curious paraphrasing. It should rather be:

  "if the algorithm cannot fail to terminate then ..."

> it would be nice to know that this is all we need in order to have
> cauchy complete cauchy reals.

It would be nice and may be true. At present we don't have a
single example topos in which the Cauchy reals are not complete
(w.r.t. sequences).

However, there is, as yet, no convincing reason to link Markov's
principle to this question.

Best wishes,

Alex

Alex Simpson, LFCS, Division of Informatics, Univ. of Edinburgh
Email: Alex.Simpson@ed.ac.uk           Tel: +44 (0)131 650 5113
Web: http://www.dcs.ed.ac.uk/home/als  Fax: +44 (0)131 667 7209






  parent reply	other threads:[~2003-01-29  8:35 UTC|newest]

Thread overview: 21+ messages / expand[flat|nested]  mbox.gz  Atom feed  top
2003-01-28 20:51 Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-29  2:00 ` Toby Bartels
2003-01-29  8:35 ` Alex Simpson [this message]
2003-02-04  9:15   ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-02-05 20:56     ` Toby Bartels
  -- strict thread matches above, loose matches on Subject: below --
2003-01-28  9:44 Andrej Bauer
2003-01-27 17:41 Andrej Bauer
2003-01-28  1:50 ` Alex Simpson
2003-01-16 23:05 Generalization of Browder's F.P. Theorem? Michael Barr
2003-01-21 18:11 ` Andrej Bauer
2003-01-22 10:13   ` Cauchy completeness of Cauchy reals Martin Escardo
2003-01-22 23:33     ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-24  8:51       ` Martin Escardo
2003-01-25  2:21         ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-25 16:24           ` Prof. Peter Johnstone
2003-01-27  3:57             ` Alex Simpson
2003-01-23  6:29     ` Vaughan Pratt
2003-02-04  0:47       ` Vaughan Pratt
2003-02-05 16:06         ` Prof. Peter Johnstone
2003-01-23  9:50     ` Mamuka Jibladze
2003-01-24  1:34     ` Ross Street
2003-01-24 16:56   ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-24 19:48     ` Dusko Pavlovic

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