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* Re: localization : more precise question
@ 2000-12-03 16:44 Philippe Gaucher
  0 siblings, 0 replies; 5+ messages in thread
From: Philippe Gaucher @ 2000-12-03 16:44 UTC (permalink / raw)
  To: categories


>I meant 'non-negative'. Maybe the definition of the category still needs 
>to be debugged. I don't know. (The motivation of this question was to encode
>the notion of 1-dimensional HDA up to dihomotopy for those who know the
>subject in a "true" category such that isomorphism classes represent 
>1-dimensional HDA up to dihomotopy). "having a 'positive' derivative at 
>all times" would be also sufficient I think.

I would like to add : I meant 'non-negative' locally. Because one needs that the 
morphism from an arrow a-->b to a loop a-->a exists. The exact definition is : 
morphism of local po-spaces (see "Algebraic topology and concurrency", by
Fajstrup, Goubault & Rau{\ss}en ; preprint R-99-2008, Aalborg University).


pg.




^ permalink raw reply	[flat|nested] 5+ messages in thread
* Re: localization : more precise question
@ 2000-12-02 23:33 Philippe Gaucher
  2000-12-03 22:39 ` Dan Christensen
  0 siblings, 1 reply; 5+ messages in thread
From: Philippe Gaucher @ 2000-12-02 23:33 UTC (permalink / raw)
  To: categories, jdc


>The question is whether the functor C[S^{-1}] --> D is faithful.
>
>I suspect that this is true in general, but can only prove it if
>you restrict yourself to CW-complexes with a finite number of cells.

I believe that you are wrong somewhere. The explanation is in 
post-scriptum (borrowed from a question in sci.math.research which 
is not yet posted by now). Or maybe I am wrong in the reasonning ?

>For infinite CW-complexes, this Ore condition doesn't hold, but I
>still suspect that the functor is faithful.  In part it depends upon
>what you mean by "orientation preserving".  Does this mean "having a
>'positive' derivative at all times"?  Or 'non-negative'?  Or can the
>map go forwards and backwards as long as overall it has degree one?

I meant 'non-negative'. Maybe the definition of the category still needs 
to be debugged. I don't know. (The motivation of this question was to encode
the notion of 1-dimensional HDA up to dihomotopy for those who know the
subject in a "true" category such that isomorphism classes represent 
1-dimensional HDA up to dihomotopy). "having a 'positive' derivative at 
all times" would be also sufficient I think.


Cheers. pg.


PS : 



The natural conjecture is that C[S^{-1}] is equivalent to the category
D whose objects are that of C and whose morphisms from A to B are the
subset of C^0(A,B) (the set of continuous maps from A to B) containing
all composites of the form g_1.f_1^{-1}.g_2...g_n.f_n^{-1}.g_{n+1}
where g_1,...,g_{n+1} are morphisms of C and f_1,...,f_n morphisms in
S.

If U is a universe containing all sets, let V be a universe with U\in
V. The categorical construction of C[S^{-1}] (let us call it
"C[S^{-1}]") gives a V-small category. "C[S^{-1}]"(A,B) is generally
not a set. To see that, take an object like g_1.f_1^{-1}.g_2 with g_1
and g_2 not invertible in C (this is a reduced form which cannot be
simplified in "C[S^{-1}]"). Then replace f_1^{-1} by

f_1^{-1} \sqcup Id_{codom(f_1^{-1})} \sqcup Id_{codom(f_1^{-1})}
\sqcup...

and g_1 by 

g_1 \sqcup g_1 \sqcup g_1 ...

Then "C[S^{-1}]"(dom(g_2),codom(g_1)) has as many elements as the sets
of U-small cardinals. Therefore "C[S^{-1}]"(dom(g_1),codom(g_2)) is
not a set.

The relation between "C[S^{-1}]" and D is as follows.  There is a
canonical V-small map g : "C[S^{-1}]"(A,B) --> Sets(A,B) and D(A,B) is
the quotient of the V-small set "C[S^{-1}]"(A,B) by the V-small
equivalence relation "x equivalent to y iff g(x)=g(y)".  The above
element of "C[S^{-1}]"(dom(g_2),codom(g_1)) are all of them identified
by this equivalence relation : it is the reason why the homset from
dom(g_2) to codom(g_1) becomes a set.

The obvious functor from C-->D does invert the morphisms of S. But one
has to prove that for any functor C-->E inverting the morphisms of S,
C-->E factorizes through C-->D by a unique functor from D-->E. Such
functor C-->E factorizes through "C[S^{-1}]" but for proving the
factorization through D, one has to prove that E is a sort of concrete
category (a category with a faithful functor to Sets). Of course there
is no reason for E to be concrete but because of the functor F:C-->E,
Im(F) is not too far from a concrete category. C is a concrete
category, constructed with oriented graphs.  I never heard about a
general way of constructing localizations of concrete categories. Does
it exist ?






^ permalink raw reply	[flat|nested] 5+ messages in thread
* localization : more precise question
@ 2000-12-01 21:13 Philippe Gaucher
  2000-12-02 18:05 ` Dan Christensen
  0 siblings, 1 reply; 5+ messages in thread
From: Philippe Gaucher @ 2000-12-01 21:13 UTC (permalink / raw)
  To: categories

Re-bonjour, 

Thank you for your answers. My question was very general. So here is
the example.

I am going to define the category C and the collection of morphisms S,
with respect to what I would like to localize.

The object of C are the oriented graph. Such an object X is a
topological space obtained by choosing a discrete set X^0 and by
attaching 1-dimensional cells *with orientations*. It is a
1-dimensional CW-complex with oriented arrows.

The morphisms of C are the continuous maps f from X to Y satisfying
this conditions :

1) f(X^0)\subset Y^0

2) f is orientation-preserving

3) f is non-contracting in the sense that a 1-cell is never contracted
to one point.


Remark I : in C, an arrow x--> is not isomorphic to a point.

Remark II : an arrow a-->b can be mapped on the loop a-->a with one 
oriented arrow from a to a.


A morphism f of C is in S if and only if f induces an homeomorphism on
the underlying topological spaces. Now here is an example of f\in S
which is not invertible :

a--->b mapped on a-->x-->b 


This morphism has no inverse in C because the image of x must be equal
to a or b by 1) and therefore one of the arrows would be contracted by
2), which contredicts 3).


I would like to know if C[S^{-1}] exists or no (in the same universe).

The irresistible conjecture is of course that C[S^{-1}] is equivalent
to the category whose objects are that of C and whose morphisms from A
to B are the subset of C^0(A,B) (the set of continuous maps from A to
B) containing all composites of the form
g_1.f_1^{-1}.g_2...g_n.f_n^{-1}.g_{n+1} where g_1,...,g_{n+1}, are
morphisms of C and f_1,...,f_n morphisms in S.

The Ore condition is not satisfied by S because of this example. The
Ore condition says that for any s:A-->B in S, and any f:X-->B, there
exists t:Y-->X in S and g:Y-->A such that s.g=f.t. Now the
counterexample : A is a--->b, B is a-->x-->b with s as above ; X is
a-->x with the inclusion f from X in B. Then necessarily Y=X and t=Id.
And s.g(x)=b and f.t(x)=x.


Thanks in advance. pg.




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