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From: Dusko Pavlovic <dusko@kestrel.edu>
To: CATEGORIES mailing list <categories@mta.ca>
Subject: Re: Cauchy completeness of Cauchy reals
Date: Tue, 28 Jan 2003 12:51:27 -0800	[thread overview]
Message-ID: <3E36ED4F.4070807@kestrel> (raw)


[this is a copy of my post of monday morning, which bounced between
bob and me a couple of times, courtesy of our mailers. -- dusko]


thanks for the replies. sorry to clog people's mailboxes, but i'll
permit myself one more post on cauchy.

(i think this does deserve some general interest because we often say
that categories capture real mathematical practices --- but as it
happens, cauchy reals are not complete, and the mean value theorem
fails, and so on. i was hoping to understand where does the usual
intuition of continuum fail, and what categorical property do we need
to do basic calculus. i came to think that coalgebras help with this,
since they capture the various notions of completeness, and wondered
why they don't capture the standard cauchy completeness argument in
this context. hence my post that invoked the reactions.)

On Sat, 25 Jan 2003 Prof. Peter Johnstone wrote:

>>>> > >If so, what
>>>> > >would "Cauchy reals" mean precisely in this general context?
>>>> > >
>>>
>>>
>>> > it means fundamental sequence, with the equivalence relation in the
>>> > "lazy" mode, a la bishop, as described in andrej bauer's message.
>>> >
>>
>>
>> I'm sorry, but this won't do. In a topos, equality is equality; you can't
>> treat it "lazily". So a Cauchy real has to be an equivalence class of
>> Cauchy sequences, and there is in general no way of choosing a
>> canonical representative for it.
>
>

one would hope that equality in a topos is widely understood, even by
me. treating fundamental sequences up to an equivalence relation in a
lazy mode just means not taking their quotient, but carrying the
explicit equivalence relation. such structures are commonly considered
in toposes. on the other hand, many constructivists (martin-lof,
bishop) say that this is the way to do constructivist
mathematics. (although i am not sure whether i came to think of cauchy
reals in this way because constructivist education left some trace, or
because undergraduate analysis didn't.)

sorry i didn't make all this clear. martin escardo's remark to which i
responded was rather cursory, he just attributed two things, so i kept
mine short. moreover, toposes were not mentioned, and as far as i
remember, the validity in toposes was not discussed either by freyd,
or by vaughan and me. we all talked about streams of digits and it
seemed to me that we were talking about cauchy reals (the
constructivist ones), until peter johnstone observed that freyd =
dedekind++.

On Sat, 25 Jan 2003 Alex Simpson wrote:

>> The question is: does every Cauchy sequence (x_i) in R_C have a
>> limit in R_C
>>
>> Here we are not starting off with a Cauchy sequence of rationals;
>> not even a Cauchy sequence of Cauchy sequences.
>
>

i realized that i typed "let a = (a_i) be a sequence of rationals"
instead of "a sequence of cauchy reals" as soon as i woke up, the
morning after i typed it, and sent a correction a couple of hours
after the post --- but our watchful moderator for some reason didn't
forward it to the list.

in any case, i said i thought that the construction went through for
cauchy sequences of constructivist cauchy reals, as described in
andrej bauer's message:


>> (2) we say that a real _is_ a fundamental sequence, where two reals
>> are claimed "equal" if they coincide (the approach taken by Bishop).
>
>

now it turns out that such cauchy reals don't count, that cauchy reals
must be


>> (1) we say that a real is an equivalence class of fundamental
>> sequences under the relation ~,
>
>

well, call me irresponsible, but i think that the same idea still
applies: the irredundant coalgebraic reals give canonical
representatives for equivalence classes too. with them, one can prove
completeness as usually.

here is a slight modification of sequences from my previous post. let
Q be the set of rationals between 0 and 1, D <= Q dyadic rationals and
N natural numbers. a cauchy real A is now a subobject of Q^N such that

     exists x in A
     forall x in A holds: |xm - xn| < 1/m+1/n
     forall x in A and all y in Q^N holds: |xm - yn| < 2/m+2/n iff y in A.

consider maps b: Q^N --> Q^N, c: Q^N --> D^N and d : D^N --> Q^N,
defined

     b(x)i = x(2^(i+3))
     c(x)i = p/2^n, such that |xi - p/2^n| < 1/2^(i+2)
                         and  |xi - q/2^m| < 1/2^(i+2) implies m>=n of q>=p
     d(x)i = x truncated after i'th digit

** i claim that the image dcb(A) of A along is a representative of A, ie
**
** 1. it is a singleton, and
** 2. an element of A.

this means that the function dcb : Q^N-->Q^N induces a choice function
from Q^N/~ to Q^N, assigning to each cauchy real a cauchy sequence of
ratioanls representing it.

the proofs proceed like for the corresponding sequences in my previous
post. in particular, for every x,y : A holds

     |cb(x)i - cb(y)i| <= |cb(x)i - b(x)i| + |b(x)i-b(y)i| + |b(y)i-cb(y)i| <
                       <  1/2^(i+2)    + 2/2^(i+3)+2/2^(i+3) +    1/2^(i+2) =
                       =  1/2^i

means that cb(x)i and cb(y)i have the first i digits equal. hence
dcb(x)i =dcb(y)i. since this holds for all i, dcb(x) = dcb(y).

now, as everyone has been pointing out, the dyadic representation
depends on markov's principle. in order to prove that the map c is
total, we need the fact that for every e>0 in Q there is some k such
that 1/2 + 1/4 +...+ 1/2^k > 1-e. in other words, that there is k
s.t. 1/2^k < e. this is *equivalent* to markov's principle.

how bad is markov's principle? well, i think that markov proposed it
as a valid *intuitionistic* principle:

** given an algorithm, if i can prove that it terminates, then i
** should be able to construct its output.

it would be nice to know that this is all we need in order to have
cauchy complete cauchy reals.

also, if this is the case, the challenge topos, where cauchy reals are
not complete, would be the realizability topos invalidating markov:
the cauchy sequence without a cauchy limit would have to be the one
that can be proven different from 0, but cannot be proven apart from
0.

is there still an error? please ignore the trivial ones this time, and
i'll try to learn from errors.

all the best,
-- dusko







             reply	other threads:[~2003-01-28 20:51 UTC|newest]

Thread overview: 21+ messages / expand[flat|nested]  mbox.gz  Atom feed  top
2003-01-28 20:51 Dusko Pavlovic [this message]
2003-01-29  2:00 ` Toby Bartels
2003-01-29  8:35 ` Alex Simpson
2003-02-04  9:15   ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-02-05 20:56     ` Toby Bartels
  -- strict thread matches above, loose matches on Subject: below --
2003-01-28  9:44 Andrej Bauer
2003-01-27 17:41 Andrej Bauer
2003-01-28  1:50 ` Alex Simpson
2003-01-16 23:05 Generalization of Browder's F.P. Theorem? Michael Barr
2003-01-21 18:11 ` Andrej Bauer
2003-01-22 10:13   ` Cauchy completeness of Cauchy reals Martin Escardo
2003-01-22 23:33     ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-24  8:51       ` Martin Escardo
2003-01-25  2:21         ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-25 16:24           ` Prof. Peter Johnstone
2003-01-27  3:57             ` Alex Simpson
2003-01-23  6:29     ` Vaughan Pratt
2003-02-04  0:47       ` Vaughan Pratt
2003-02-05 16:06         ` Prof. Peter Johnstone
2003-01-23  9:50     ` Mamuka Jibladze
2003-01-24  1:34     ` Ross Street
2003-01-24 16:56   ` Dusko Pavlovic
2003-01-24 19:48     ` Dusko Pavlovic

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