From: "Prof. Peter Johnstone" <P.T.Johnstone@dpmms.cam.ac.uk>
To: categories@mta.ca
Subject: Re: Laws
Date: Tue, 8 Aug 2006 09:38:02 +0100 (BST) [thread overview]
Message-ID: <E1GAQ40-0007Vc-PS@mailserv.mta.ca> (raw)
The following seems so obvious that I suspect it's not what Tom is
really asking for; but it seems to me to be an answer to his
question. A law in Tom's sense is just a parallel pair of arrows
F(X) \rightrightarrows F(1) in the algebraic theory T under
consideration (thinking of T as the dual of the category of
finitely-generated free algebras). To get the theory of algebras
satisfying a given set S of laws, you just need to construct the
product-respecting congruence on T generated by S (i.e., the usual
closure conditions for a congruence, plus the condition that
f ~ f' and g ~ g' imply f x g ~ f' x g'), and factor out by it.
Now any T-algebra A (in a category C, say) corresponds to a product-
preserving functor F: T --> C; and the set of laws satisfied by A
is just the (necessarily product-respecting) congruence generated
by F, i.e. the set of parallel pairs in T having the same image
under F. Is there anything more to it than that?
Peter Johnstone
------------
On Mon, 7 Aug 2006, Tom Leinster wrote:
> Dear category theorists,
>
> Here's something that I don't understand. People sometimes talk about
> algebraic structures "satisfying laws". E.g. let's take groups. Being
> abelian is a law; it says that the equation xy = yx holds. A group G
> "satisfies no laws" if
>
> whenever X is a set and w, w' are distinct elements of the free
> group F(X) on X, there exists a homomorphism f: F(X) ---> G
> such that f(w) and f(w') are distinct.
>
> For example, an abelian group cannot satisfy no laws, since you could take
> X = {x, y}, w = xy, and w' = yx. There are various interesting examples
> of groups that satisfy no laws.
>
> To be rather concrete about it, you could define a "law satisfied by G" to
> be a triple (X, w, w') consisting of a set X and elements w, w' of F(X),
> such that every homomorphism F(X) ---> G sends w and w' to the same thing.
> A law is "trivial" if w = w'. Then "satisfies no laws" means "satisfies
> only trivial laws".
>
> You could then say: given a group G, consider the groups that satisfy all
> the laws satisfied by G. (E.g. if G is abelian then all such groups will
> be abelian.) This is going to be a new algebraic theory.
>
> What bothers me is that I feel there must be some categorical story I'm
> missing here. Everything above is very concrete; for instance, it's
> heavily set-based. What's known about all this? In particular, what's
> known about the process described in the previous paragraph, whereby any
> theory T and T-algebra G give rise to a new theory?
>
> Thanks,
> Tom
>
>
>
>
>
next reply other threads:[~2006-08-08 8:38 UTC|newest]
Thread overview: 12+ messages / expand[flat|nested] mbox.gz Atom feed top
2006-08-08 8:38 Prof. Peter Johnstone [this message]
-- strict thread matches above, loose matches on Subject: below --
2006-08-25 8:49 Laws Jiri Adamek
2006-08-12 15:37 Laws F W Lawvere
2006-08-11 23:18 Laws Tom Leinster
2006-08-10 0:19 Laws George Janelidze
2006-08-09 2:24 Laws Rob Goldblatt
2006-08-08 23:31 Laws Jon Cohen
2006-08-08 19:19 Laws F W Lawvere
2006-08-08 11:28 Laws George Janelidze
2006-08-08 6:30 Laws flinton
2006-08-08 5:08 Laws Peter Selinger
2006-08-07 13:36 Laws Tom Leinster
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