Why wouldn't a skeletal LCCC be a model of (1) + UIP? On Thursday, July 20, 2017 at 1:57:37 PM UTC-4, Michael Shulman wrote: > > But is it known that this is definitely weaker? E.g. are there models > that satisfy invariance but not the computation rule? > > On Thu, Jul 20, 2017 at 4:59 AM, Steve Awodey > wrote: > > I think we’ve been through this before: > > > > (1) (A ≃ B) -> (A = B) > > > > is logically equivalent to what may be called “invariance”: > > > > if P(X) is any type depending on a type variable X, then given > any equivalence e : A ≃ B , we have P(A) ≃ P(B). > > > > if we add to this a certain “computation rule”, we get something > logically equivalent to UA: > > assume p : A ≃ B → A = B; then given e : A ≃ B, we have p(e) : A = B is > a path in U. > > Since we can transport along this path in any family of types over U, > and transport is always an equivalence, > > there is a transport p(e)∗ : A ≃ B in the identity family. > > The required “computation rule” states that p(e)∗ = e. > > > > Steve > > > > > > > >> On Jul 20, 2017, at 8:56 AM, Bas Spitters > wrote: > >> > >>> It was observed previously on this list, > >> Maybe we should be using our wiki more? > >> https://ncatlab.org/homotopytypetheory/ > >> > >> > >> On Wed, Jul 19, 2017 at 7:19 PM, Michael Shulman > wrote: > >>> It was observed previously on this list, I think, that full univalence > >>> (3) is equivalent to > >>> > >>> (4) forall A, IsContr( Sigma(B:U) (A ≃ B) ). > >>> > >>> This follows from the fact that a fiberwise map is a fiberwise > >>> equivalence as soon as it induces an equivalence on total spaces, and > >>> the fact that based path spaces are contractible. But the > >>> contractibility of based path spaces also gives (2) -> (4), and hence > >>> (2) -> (3). > >>> > >>> I am not sure about (1). It might be an open question even in the > >>> case when A and B are propositions. > >>> > >>> > >>> On Wed, Jul 19, 2017 at 9:26 AM, Ian Orton > wrote: > >>>> Consider the following three statements, for all types A and B: > >>>> > >>>> (1) (A ≃ B) -> (A = B) > >>>> (2) (A ≃ B) ≃ (A = B) > >>>> (3) isEquiv idtoeqv > >>>> > >>>> (3) is the full univalence axiom and we have implications (3) -> (2) > -> (1), > >>>> but can we say anything about the other directions? Do we have (1) -> > (2) or > >>>> (2) -> (3)? Can we construct models separating any/all of these three > >>>> statements? > >>>> > >>>> Thanks, > >>>> Ian >