Can you elaborate on why it is true? Also as this statement is similar to Yoneda's lemma, do we have something like For a type X : U and B : X -> U, Id (X -> U) (Id X x) B is equivalent to B x? On Fri, Nov 17, 2017 at 3:53 PM, Martín Hötzel Escardó < escardo...@gmail.com> wrote: > Consider the identity type former Id of the type X:U in the universe U: > > Id : X -> (X -> U). > > I've known for some years that this is an embedding of the type X into the > type (X->U). This means that the fibers of Id are propositions, or, > equivalently, that the maps ap Id : x = y -> Id x = Id y are equivalences > for all x,y:X. > > This depends on univalence. I've just realized that this is actually > *equivalent* to univalence. Has anybody noticed this before? > > Martin > > -- > You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups > "Homotopy Type Theory" group. > To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an > email to HomotopyTypeThe...@googlegroups.com. > For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout. >