RE: Encoding and mapping glyphs from an expert font

[Idris Samawi Hamid <ishamid@lamar.colostate.edu>]

Thank you very much for responding, Thomas.

>===== Original Message From "Thomas A.Schmitz" <thomas.schmitz@uni-bonn.de> 
=====
>I am not sure I have understood everything you write, but here's a very
>brief outline of what I think you need to do. There are two cases you
>need to consider:

I am in case 1: pfb-normal + pfb-expert

>1. You have more than one font (this seems to be your case), normally
>these will be postscript type1 fonts (extensions .pfb or .pfa). If you
>want to mix characters from two fonts (say, normal letters from font A,
>oldstyle numerals and maybe small caps from font B), you can most
>easily do this via a virtual font. It's not too hard; I wrote a small
>how-to which you can find on CTAN
>(http://www.ctan.org/tex-archive/info/virtualfontshowto/?action=/tex-
>archive/info/)

<snip>

>So there is no simple answer to your question. TeX knows to pick up
>zerooldstyle instead of zero either
>1. because you have a virtual font that says MAPFONT 1, so it knows it
>will have to use a different pfb than for the rest, or
>2. because the encoding file points to character zerooldstyle within
>the ttf.

Ok, but Hans explicitly claimed to have done this for Latin Modern without 
virtual fonts, only encoding trickery (I'll c if I can find that message). 
Actually, I was really surprised when Hans said he could do this without 
virtual fonts, and have always been eager to learn the trick;->

With Alan Hoenig's help almost 2 years ago I contructed a complete virtual 
font for old style cmr using virtual fonts; I guess I can do that again 
(though with a non-TeX font I'm scared;-> I'll read your how-to). On the other 
hand, how will TeXFont handle virtual fonts? What does TeXfont need to do this 
correctly? Or do we just forget about TeXFont?

Thanks again!

Best
Idris

============================
Professor Idris Samawi Hamid
Department of Philosophy
Colorado State University
Fort Collins, CO 80523