Discussion of Homotopy Type Theory and Univalent Foundations
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From: Nicolai Kraus <nicola...@gmail.com>
To: Martin Escardo <escardo...@googlemail.com>
Cc: Matthieu Sozeau <matthie...@inria.fr>,
	 homotopytypetheory <homotopyt...@googlegroups.com>
Subject: Re: [HoTT] Is [Equiv Type_i Type_i] contractible?
Date: Thu, 27 Oct 2016 18:09:07 +0100	[thread overview]
Message-ID: <CA+AZBBpfCtq5ynuTTCn8mddr9MLOUQoVo5qWpKrAnBPF8=Lw4A@mail.gmail.com> (raw)
In-Reply-To: <73e93a79-8002-34b6-93b5-35ca6aba9628@googlemail.com>

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On Thu, Oct 27, 2016 at 4:38 PM, 'Martin Escardo' via Homotopy Type Theory <
HomotopyT...@googlegroups.com> wrote:

>
> On 27/10/16 16:19, 'Martin Escardo' via Homotopy Type Theory wrote:
> > There was a proof in this list that if you have excluded middle than
> > there is an automorphism of U that flips the types 0 and 1. (Peter
> > Lumsdaine.)
>
> I can't find the link to this proof.


Martin, I guess you mean:
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/homotopytypetheory/8CV0S2DuOI8/ZvS9S-gROfIJ

In your formulation of the construction, you can swap any two given types A
and B, not only 0 and 1. This is because you really only need to decide ||X
= A|| and ||X = B||.
-- Nicolai



> But here is one proof which is
> either what Peter said or very similar to it.
>
> To define such an automorphism f:U->U, given X:U, we have that X=0 and
> X=1 are propositions. Hence we can use excluded middle to check if any
> them holds, and define f(X) accordingly. Otherwise take f(X)=X.
>
> > And conversely that if there is an automorphism that flips the types 0
> > and 1, then excluded middle holds. (Myself.)
>
> I can find this one, which is slightly more complicated, but still short:
>
> https://groups.google.com/d/msg/homotopytypetheory/
> 8CV0S2DuOI8/Jn5EeSwxc4gJ
>
> Martin
>
>
>
> >
> > Hence "potentially" there are at least two automorphisms of U.
> >
> > Martin
> >
> > On 27/10/16 16:15, Matthieu Sozeau wrote:
> >> Dear all,
> >>
> >>   we've been stuck with N. Tabareau and his student Théo Winterhalter on
> >> the above question. Is it the case that all equivalences between a
> >> universe and itself are equivalent to the identity? We can't seem to
> >> prove (or disprove) this from univalence alone, and even additional
> >> parametricity assumptions do not seem to help. Did we miss a
> >> counterexample? Did anyone investigate this or can produce a proof as an
> >> easy corollary? What is the situation in, e.g. the simplicial model?
> >>
> >> -- Matthieu
> >>
> >> --
> >> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google
> >> Groups "Homotopy Type Theory" group.
> >> To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send
> >> an email to HomotopyTypeThe...@googlegroups.com
> >> <mailto:HomotopyTypeThe...@googlegroups.com>.
> >> For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.
> >
>
> --
> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
> "Homotopy Type Theory" group.
> To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an
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  reply	other threads:[~2016-10-27 17:09 UTC|newest]

Thread overview: 14+ messages / expand[flat|nested]  mbox.gz  Atom feed  top
2016-10-27 15:15 Matthieu Sozeau
2016-10-27 15:19 ` [HoTT] " Martin Escardo
2016-10-27 15:38   ` Martin Escardo
2016-10-27 17:09     ` Nicolai Kraus [this message]
2016-10-27 17:08 ` Vladimir Voevodsky
2016-10-27 17:12 ` Ulrik Buchholtz
2016-10-27 19:44   ` [HoTT] " Richard Williamson
2016-10-27 20:38     ` Ulrik Buchholtz
2016-10-30 20:56       ` Richard Williamson
2016-10-31 10:00         ` Eric Finster
2016-10-31 13:07           ` MLTT with proof-relevant judgmental equality? Neel Krishnaswami
2016-10-31 21:43             ` [HoTT] " Andrej Bauer
2016-10-31 22:01               ` Neel Krishnaswami
2016-10-27 20:18 ` Is [Equiv Type_i Type_i] contractible? nicolas tabareau

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